How does the law of inertia explain the similarity between rest and uniform motion?

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  • The law of inertia, also known as Newton's first law of motion, states that an object at rest will stay at rest. Likewise, an object in motion will remain in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless there is a net external force. 

    Now in both ideal states, the net external force on an object is zero.

    From the perspective of classical mechanics, there isn't a significant distinction between rest and uniform motion. They can be seen as the same state of motion viewed from different reference frames. An object is considered to be in a state of equilibrium whether it is at rest or in uniform motion.

Similar Questions for you

S
Syed Aquib Ur Rahman

Yes, all objects have inertia. It does not depend on whether they are moving or not. Inertia is an object's inherent resistance to any change in its state of motion.

For an object at rest, its inertia is its tendency to remain at rest. A force is required to overcome this inertia and set the object in motion. 

The amount of inertia an object has is determined by its mass. The more massive an object is, the more it resists a change in its state of motion. We can also say that this heavier object has greater inertia.

S
Syed Aquib Ur Rahman

As per Galileo's Law of Inertia, objects in motion have a natural tendency to stay in motion. This property is called inertia. But, they stop moving as there are external forces. Now, we should know that friction is a type of force. It acts in parallel and opposes motion when two surfaces are in contact. Then we have air resistance, which is a type of friction that acts on objects as they move through the air.

In an ideal scenario, as Galileo and Newton would have proved through their observations and mathematical enquiries, there will be no friction or air resistance. Then an object in motion would continue to move indefinitely in

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