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Difference between mean and variance of a binomial variate is '1' and difference between their square is '11'. Then probability of getting exactly three success is:

Option 1 -

³⁹C₃ (1/3)³ (2/3)³⁶

Option 2 -

³⁶C₃ (1/6)³ (5/6)³³

Option 3 -

³⁶C₃ (1/3)³ (2/3)³³

Option 4 -

³⁶C₃ (5/6)³ (1/6)³³

0 3 Views | Posted 3 weeks ago
Asked by Shiksha User

  • 1 Answer

  • R

    Answered by

    Raj Pandey | Contributor-Level 9

    3 weeks ago
    Correct Option - 2


    Detailed Solution:

    Mean = n p , variance = n p q

    n p - n p q = 1 ; p + q = 1

    n 2 p 2 - n 2 p 2 q 2 = 11

    We get   q = 5 6 , p = 1 6 , n = 36  Probability of ' 3 ' success = 36 C 3 1 6 3 5 6 33

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