10.13 Glycerin flows steadily through a horizontal tube of length 1.5 m and radius 1.0 cm. If the amount of glycerin collected per second at one end is 4.0 × 10–3 kg s–1, what is the pressure difference between the two ends of the tube? (Density of glycerin = 1.3 × 103 kg m–3 and viscosity of glycerin = 0.83 Pa s). [You may also like to check if the assumption of laminar flow in the tube is correct]. 

0 2 Views | Posted 5 months ago
Asked by Shiksha User

  • 1 Answer

  • V

    Answered by

    Vishal Baghel | Contributor-Level 10

    5 months ago

    Length of the horizontal tube, l = 1.5 m

    Radius of the tube, r = 1 cm = 0.01 m

    Diameter of the tube, d = 2r = 0.02m

    Glycerine mass flow rate, M = 4 ×10-3 kg/s

    Density of glycerine, ρ = 1.3 ×103 kg

    Viscosity of glycerine, η = 0.83 Pa-s

    Now, volume of glycerine flowing per sec V = Mρ = 4×10-31.3×103 m3 /s = 3.08 ×10-6 m3 /s

    According to Poiseville’s formula, we know the flow rate

    V = π×p×r48×η×l where p is the pressure difference between two ends of the tube

    p = V×8×η×lπ×r4 = 3.08×10-6×8×0.83×1.5π×(0.01)4 = 976.47 Pa

    Reynolds’s number is given by the relation

    Re = 4ρVπdη = 4×1.3×103×3.08×10-63.1416×0.02×0.83 = 0.3

    Since the Reynolds&r

    ...more

Similar Questions for you

S
Swayam Gupta

Surface tension is the force acting on the surface of the liquid.

S
Swayam Gupta

Bernoulli's principle states that in a steady flow, the sum of pressure, kinetic energy per unit volume, and potential energy per unit volume remains constant.

S
Swayam Gupta

Yes, the Mechanical properties of fluids class 11th physics is important in NEET. On average, 1-2 questions would be asked from this chapter, which you can cover from the Class 11th Mechanical Properties of Fluids notes.

S
Swayam Gupta

The main mechanical properties of fluids are exerting pressure, resisting flow or viscosity, forming surface tension, following Bernoulli's principle, and moving in a streamline.

V
Vishal Baghel

Since velocity does not change, so acceleration will be zero.

mg = FB + Fv 4 π 3 r 3 ρ g = 4 π 3 r 3 σ g + 6 π η r v

v = 2 r 2 ( ρ σ ) g 9 η = 2 × 0 . 1 × 0 . 1 × 1 0 6 × ( 1 0 4 1 0 3 ) × 1 0 9 × 1 . 0 × 1 0 5

h = 4 0 0 2 g = 2 0 m

Get authentic answers from experts, students and alumni that you won't find anywhere else

Sign Up on Shiksha

On Shiksha, get access to

  • 65k Colleges
  • 1.2k Exams
  • 686k Reviews
  • 1800k Answers

Learn more about...

Share Your College Life Experience

Didn't find the answer you were looking for?

Search from Shiksha's 1 lakh+ Topics

or

Ask Current Students, Alumni & our Experts

×

This website uses Cookies and related technologies for the site to function correctly and securely, improve & personalise your browsing experience, analyse traffic, and support our marketing efforts and serve the Core Purpose. By continuing to browse the site, you agree to Privacy Policy and Cookie Policy.

Need guidance on career and education? Ask our experts

Characters 0/140

The Answer must contain atleast 20 characters.

Add more details

Characters 0/300

The Answer must contain atleast 20 characters.

Keep it short & simple. Type complete word. Avoid abusive language. Next

Your Question

Edit

Add relevant tags to get quick responses. Cancel Post