Let in a Binomial distribution, consisting of 5 independent trials, probabilities of exactly 1 and 2 successes be 0.4096 and 0.2048 respectively. Then the probability of getting exactly 3 successes is equal to :

Option 1 -

40/243

Option 2 -

80/243

Option 3 -

32/625

Option 4 -

128/625

0 2 Views | Posted a month ago
Asked by Shiksha User

  • 1 Answer

  • V

    Answered by

    Vishal Baghel | Contributor-Level 10

    a month ago
    Correct Option - 3


    Detailed Solution:

    This is a binomial probability problem with n=5. Let p be the probability of success and q be the probability of failure.
    Given P (X=1) =? C? p¹q? = 5pq? = 0.4096 — (I)
    Given P (X=2) =? C? p²q³ = 10p²q³ = 0.2048 — (II)
    Divide (I) by (II): (5pq? ) / (10p²q³) = 0.4096 / 0.2048 = 2.
    (1/2) * (q/p) = 2 ⇒ q/p = 4 ⇒ q = 4p.
    Using p+q=1, we have p+4p=1 ⇒ 5p=1 ⇒ p=1/5.
    And q = 4/5.
    We need to find P (X=3) =? C? p³q².
    P (X=3) = 10 * (1/5)³ * (4/5)² = 10 * (1/125) * (16/25) = 160 / 3125 = 32 / 625.

Similar Questions for you

A
alok kumar singh

P (2 obtained on even numbered toss) = k (let)

P (2) = 1 6  

P (  2 ¯ )= 5 6  

k = 5 6 × 1 6 + ( 5 6 ) 3 × 1 6 + ( 5 6 ) 5 × 1 6 + . . .

= 5 6 × 1 6 1 ( 5 6 ) 2

= 5 1 1

A
alok kumar singh

If x = 0, y = 6, 7, 8, 9, 10

If x = 1, y = 7, 8, 9, 10

If x = 2, y = 8, 9, 10

If x = 3, y = 9, 10

If x = 4, y = 10

If x = 5, y = no possible value

Total possible ways = (5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1) * 2

= 30

Required probability  = 3 0 1 1 * 1 1 = 3 0 1 2 1

A
alok kumar singh

P (2W and 2B) = P (2B, 6W) × P (2W and 2B)

+ P (3B, 5W) × P (2W and 2B)

+ P (4B, 4W) × P (2W and 2B)

+ P (5B, 3W) × P (2W and 2B)

+ P (6B, 2W) × P (2W and 2B)

(15 + 30 + 36 + 30 + 15)

           

= 3 6 1 2 6

= 1 8 6 3

= 6 2 1

= 2 7

             

A
alok kumar singh

Let probability of tail is   1 3

Probability of getting head = 2 3  

Probability of getting 2 heads and 1 tail

= ( 2 3 × 2 3 × 1 3 ) × 3

= 4 2 7 × 3

= 4 9                  

                   

                   

V
Vishal Baghel

ax2 + bx + c = 0

D = b2 – 4ac

D = 0

b2 – 4ac = 0

b2 = 4ac

(i) AC = 1, b = 2 (1, 2, 1) is one way

(ii) AC = 4, b = 4

a = 4 c = 1 a = 2 c = 2 a = 1 c = 4 } 3 w a y s

(iii) AC = 9, b = 6, a = 3, c = 3 is one way

1 + 3 + 1 = 5 way

Required probability = 5 2 1 6   

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