Why do we use parametric equations?

Some of the common mistakes that people usually make while using logarithmic differentiation have been mentioned below:

• Not Multiplying by y: After logarithmic differentiation, it is mandatory to multiply by y to solve for dy/dx?
• Incorrectly Applying the Chain Rule: Make sure that you have correctly

$f\left(x\right)=\frac{\left(2^x+2^{-x}\right)tanx\sqrt[]{ta{n}^{-1}\left(2x^2-3x+1\right)}}{{\left(7x^2-3x+1\right)}^3}$

$f\left(x\right)=\left(2^x+2^{-x}\right).tanx.\sqrt[]{ta{n}^{-1}\left(2x^2-3x+1\right)}.{\left(7x^2-3x+1\right)}^{-3}$

$f\text{'}\left(x\right)=\left(2^x+2^{-x}\right).se{c}^{2}x.\sqrt[]{ta{n}^{-1}\left(2x^2-3x+1\right)}.{\left(7x^2-3x+1\right)}^{-3}+tanx.\left(Q\left(x\right)\right)$

$f\text{'}\left(0\right)=2.1\sqrt[]{\frac{\pi }{4}}.1$

$=\sqrt[]{\pi }$

RHL $\underset{x\to 0^{+}}{lim}\frac{co{s}^{-1}\left(1-x^2\right)si{n}^{-1}\left(1-x\right)}{x-x^3}$

$\underset{x\to 0^{+}}{lim}\frac{\pi }{2}\cdot \frac{co{s}^{-1}\left(1-x^2\right)}{x}$

$\frac{\pi }{2}\underset{x\to 0^{+}}{lim}\frac{-1}{\sqrt[]{{\left(1-\left(1-x^2\right)\right)}^2}}\left(-2x\right)$

$=\frac{\pi }{2}\underset{x\to 2^{+}}{lim}\frac{2x}{\sqrt[]{2x^2-x^4}}=\pi \underset{x\to 0^{+}}{lim}\frac{x}{x\sqrt[]{2-x^2}}$

$=\frac{\pi }{\sqrt[]{2}}$

LHL $\underset{x\to 0^{+}}{lim}\frac{co{s}^{-1}\left(1-{\left(1+x\right)}^2\right)si{n}^{-1}\left(1-\left(1+x\right)\right)}{1\cdot \left(1-{\left(1+x\right)}^2\right)}$

$=\underset{x\to 0^{-}}{lim}\frac{co{s}^{-1}\left(-x^2-2x\right),si{n}^{-1}\left(-x\right)}{-x^2-2x}$            

$=\frac{\pi }{2}\underset{x\to 0^{-}}{lim}\frac{-si{n}^{-1}x}{-x\left(x+2\right)}=\frac{\pi }{2}\times \frac{1}{2}=\frac{\pi }{2}$            

Given $\left(x\right)=\{\begin{array}{l}2sin\left(\frac{-\pi x}{2}\right),x<-1\\ \left|a{x}^2+x+b\right|,-1\le x\le 1\\ sin\pi x,x>1\end{array}$

If f (x) is continuous for all $x\in R$ then it should be continuous at x = 1 & x = -1

At x = -1, L.H.L = R.H.L. Þ 2 = |a + b - 1|

->a + b – 3 = 0  OR  a + b + 1 = 0 . (i)

-> a + b + 1 = 0 . (ii)

(i) & (ii), a + b =-1

Given f(x) = ${\displaystyle {\int }_e^x{e}^{t}f\left(t\right)dt+e^x..........\left(i\right)}$  

using Leibniz rule then

f’(x) = e^xf(x) + e^x

  _{$\Rightarrow \frac{dy}{dx}=e^{x}y+e^{x}wherey=f\left(x\right)then\frac{dy}{dx}=f\text{'}\left(x\right)$}                

P = -e^x, Q = e^x

Solution be y. (I.F.) =   ${\displaystyle \int Q\left(I.F.\right)dx+c}$

I. f. =   $e^{{\displaystyle \int -e^{x}dx}=e^{-e^x}}$

$\Rightarrow y.\left(e^{-e^x}\right)={\displaystyle \int e^x.e^{-e^x}dx+c}$          

  $y.e^{-e^x}=-{\displaystyle \int dt+c=-t+c=-e^{-e^x}+c..........\left(ii\right)}$          

Put x =