Why do we use parametric equations?

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  • J

    Answered by

    Jaya Sharma | Contributor-Level 10

    a month ago

    We use parametric equations for the following reasons:

    • Parametric equations represent all those curves that are otherwise impossible to be represented as a single function. Circles, cycloids, ellipses and spirals are all described using parametric equations.
    • These equations can easily describe motion of objects over time.
    • Parametric equations help in breaking down complex relationships into simpler components. Rather than dealing with single complex equation, one can describe x and y seperately in terms of t parameter.
    • These equations extend to three dimensions easily and naturally, so that one can describe curves and surfaces in 3D space.
    ...more

Similar Questions for you

J
Jaya Sharma

Some of the common mistakes that people usually make while using logarithmic differentiation have been mentioned below:

  • Not Multiplying by y: After logarithmic differentiation, it is mandatory to multiply by y to solve for dy/dx?
  • Incorrectly Applying the Chain Rule: Make sure that you have correctly used the chain rule whenever you are differentiating a logarithmic expression.
  • Using Wrong Logarithm: It is always advisable to use the natural logarithm (ln) instead of logarithms with other bases.
  • Ignoring Domain Restrictions: Natural logarithm is only defined for the positive real numbers; therefore, y>0 whenever you apply logarithmic diffe
...more
A
alok kumar singh

f ( x ) = ( 2 x + 2 x ) t a n x t a n 1 ( 2 x 2 3 x + 1 ) ( 7 x 2 3 x + 1 ) 3

f ( x ) = ( 2 x + 2 x ) . t a n x . t a n 1 ( 2 x 2 3 x + 1 ) . ( 7 x 2 3 x + 1 ) 3

f ' ( x ) = ( 2 x + 2 x ) . s e c 2 x . t a n 1 ( 2 x 2 3 x + 1 ) . ( 7 x 2 3 x + 1 ) 3 + t a n x . ( Q ( x ) )

f ' ( 0 ) = 2 . 1 π 4 . 1

= π

 

A
alok kumar singh

RHL l i m x 0 + c o s 1 ( 1 x 2 ) s i n 1 ( 1 x ) x x 3

l i m x 0 + π 2 c o s 1 ( 1 x 2 ) x

π 2 l i m x 0 + 1 ( 1 ( 1 x 2 ) ) 2 ( 2 x )

= π 2 l i m x 2 + 2 x 2 x 2 x 4 = π l i m x 0 + x x 2 x 2

= π 2

LHL l i m x 0 + c o s 1 ( 1 ( 1 + x ) 2 ) s i n 1 ( 1 ( 1 + x ) ) 1 ( 1 ( 1 + x ) 2 )

= l i m x 0 c o s 1 ( x 2 2 x ) , s i n 1 ( x ) x 2 2 x            

= π 2 l i m x 0 s i n 1 x x ( x + 2 ) = π 2 × 1 2 = π 2            

A
alok kumar singh

Given ( x ) = { 2 s i n ( π x 2 ) , x < 1 | a x 2 + x + b | , 1 x 1 s i n π x , x > 1

If f (x) is continuous for all xR then it should be continuous at x = 1 & x = -1

At x = -1, L.H.L = R.H.L. Þ 2 = |a + b - 1|

->a + b – 3 = 0  OR  a + b + 1 = 0 . (i)

-> a + b + 1 = 0 . (ii)

(i) & (ii), a + b =-1

A
alok kumar singh

Given f(x) = e x e t f ( t ) d t + e x . . . . . . . . . . ( i )  

using Leibniz rule then

f’(x) = exf(x) + ex

  d y d x = e x y + e x w h e r e y = f ( x ) t h e n d y d x = f ' ( x )                

P = -ex, Q = ex

Solution be y. (I.F.) =   Q ( I . F . ) d x + c

I. f. =   e e x d x = e e x

y . ( e e x ) = e x . e e x d x + c          

  y . e e x = d t + c = t + c = e e x + c . . . . . . . . . . ( i i )          

Put x = 0 , in (i) f (0) = 1

F r o m ( i i ) , 1 e = 1 e + c g i v e n c = 2 e        

Hence f(x) = 2. e ( e x 1 ) 1  

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